Dear all,
is my first post here. Firs of all, thank you very much for providing such an active community.
My question is the following, let consider this situation.
I have an owner profile that has his always on VPN set with a specific server. Let's say Server A.
I have user_1 profile that has the same app for connecting to vpn but to avoid using the same address as owner. This because it could happen that i need to use the same external app or service with two identities/username. So I set Server B for user_1. It is very important that never happen that connection of apps from user_1 will user Server A or owner will use server B. What happens if I set the permission for apps of user_1 to be runnable in backgruound? What will be the IP address associated with the activity of owner and user_1 from the point of view of the services that I use?
I ask because I do not understand if we are in the case that:
0) All running apps of owner will continue to use Server A. The background apps of user_1 are using server B. (Good)
1) All running apps associated will use the vpn server of the active user and in this case I am committing an identiy leak since I am logging to a service using server A but from user_1.
How does it works?
Thank you very much for explaining,